The warning is at the end of the Revelation of Jesus Christ to the Apostle John and since the Bible as a "book" had not been assembled at the time, it is in error to try to say that particular verse applies to the Bible as a whole.
As for the other translations, many of those you mention were translated from the earliest Greek and Latin Manuscripts avaiable and did not rely solely on the two Codex that you mention.
I have no problem using the KJV but keep in mind it was a translation that came into existence for political reasons and was influenced by the Doctrine of the Church of England of which James was the head. There have been many changes made in the KJV Bibles that are used today when compared to the original 1611. In fact, if you had the original 1611 translation, few people in the US today could even read it. It was written in Old English and even the typeface was different form what we use today.
Rouse, I have given up on debating King-James-Onlyites some time ago. The best Bible translation to use is the one you read as long as it is true to the Hebrew/Greek/Aramaic mss.
Most of the time they claim all other versions came from corrupted Alexandrian mss. The argument of Catholic sourcing is new to me. I need to study this issue some more.
There are real problems with the KJV today. First of all, if you preach from it, you need to constantly stop and say something like "what this passage really means is..." A couple examples come to mind. In 1 Thess 4:15, the KJV reads "For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep." You would need to stop reading and tell your congregation that "prevent" means "precede" because meanings change. The sentence makes absolutely no sense in the KJV. Another is 1 Cor 13, which, for example, deals with the fact that no matter how great your faith is, without love, it amounts to nothing. When the KJV renders this as "charity," most of the true meaning is lost. The English word "love" is much more appropriate. Words' meanings change!
I can think of a complete mistranslation or two also. Where 1 Tim 6:10 reads, in the KJV, "For the love of money is the root of all evil..." common sense will tell you that lots of other things (like lust, pride, and so on) are roots of evil. The original Greek reads as the New American Standard does, i.e., "For the love of money is a root of all sorts of evil..." This is much closer in meaning to what Paul wrote than the KJV text says.
There are other problems, such as the KJV's reference to the Holy Spirit as an "it," instead of "He," that bother me. However, some passages should be read in the King James because of the beauty of the text, for example, the Christmas story in Luke 2, and Psalm 23.
The bottom line is that whether you read the KJV or NASB, the important message is the same, the main part of which we celebrated yesterday! And lest I be accused of going off-topic, I agree we should not sell on Good Friday or Easter.