Help me out here. I read about how this or that FIA can make a client potentially much more than another FIA. Question: is that possible over time? I mean, it's a fixed income product with the ins co investing in options/bonds underneath it. Well, the bond rates are what they are, and options cost what they cost. So how can one FIA pay much more than another OVER TIME. It would seem that after a couple of years of " over paying" based on whatever the current rate environment is, they would be forced to lower caps. They all live in the same fixed income world, right?