Med Supp GI Rights & Compliance

Would this hypothetical situation be considered non-compliant? An agent enroll a Medicare beneficiary into an MA-PD in October 2024 with a 11.1.24 start date using an SEP. The agent knows that this plan is no longer being offered for 2025. The enrollee receives a letter stating that they are being involuntarily disenrolled, & they receive a letter stating that they have a guaranteed-issue right to enroll in a Med Supp. The agent then enrolls the client into a standalone PDP & a Med Supp using this GI right with a 1.1.25 effective date? I'm assuming that this would be considered non-compliant, but I just wanted to be sure.
 
Would this hypothetical situation be considered non-compliant? An agent enroll a Medicare beneficiary into an MA-PD in October 2024 with a 11.1.24 start date using an SEP. The agent knows that this plan is no longer being offered for 2025. The enrollee receives a letter stating that they are being involuntarily disenrolled, & they receive a letter stating that they have a guaranteed-issue right to enroll in a Med Supp. The agent then enrolls the client into a standalone PDP & a Med Supp using this GI right with a 1.1.25 effective date? I'm assuming that this would be considered non-compliant, but I just wanted to be sure.

As far as I know you can no longer enroll someone in a termed plan this year, not sure if this is non-compliant but depending on your state you're doing all this work for a paltry $5 ish a month.
 
Would this hypothetical situation be considered non-compliant? An agent enroll a Medicare beneficiary into an MA-PD in October 2024 with a 11.1.24 start date using an SEP. The agent knows that this plan is no longer being offered for 2025. The enrollee receives a letter stating that they are being involuntarily disenrolled, & they receive a letter stating that they have a guaranteed-issue right to enroll in a Med Supp. The agent then enrolls the client into a standalone PDP & a Med Supp using this GI right with a 1.1.25 effective date? I'm assuming that this would be considered non-compliant, but I just wanted to be sure.
Why would it be non-compliant?
 
Would this hypothetical situation be considered non-compliant? An agent enroll a Medicare beneficiary into an MA-PD in October 2024 with a 11.1.24 start date using an SEP. The agent knows that this plan is no longer being offered for 2025. The enrollee receives a letter stating that they are being involuntarily disenrolled, & they receive a letter stating that they have a guaranteed-issue right to enroll in a Med Supp. The agent then enrolls the client into a standalone PDP & a Med Supp using this GI right with a 1.1.25 effective date? I'm assuming that this would be considered non-compliant, but I just wanted to be sure.
The key in all of this is the term involuntary disenrolled. It's just the company saying no.

Why does it have to be a supp when you started with MAPD? If he wants MAPD just do another one.
 
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