Randomly I come across Medicaid individuals aging into Medicare, and are still paying the Medicaid costs for their Rx's when I was under the impression those should be subject to Medicare's (PDP) cost.
Example (PA):
Client has Medicaid. Medicare begun 4/1 (A&B). Medicare reflects NO LIS, NO PDP coverage, NOT Full. IEP ends this month. Due to PA COVID extension, still has Medicaid but probably will lose it when extension ends; TBD. However, when I asked how much they are currently paying for their list of Medications, they gave the Medicaid Rates.
My question is ultimately: how is this possible? My understanding was once someone gets Medicare, Medicaid is secondary but Rx coverage stops with the exception of a handful of drug types.
Am I missing something here? I wish Medicare and Medicaid would make it very clear how they interact with one another during this transition period but it seems everyone is different.
Example (PA):
Client has Medicaid. Medicare begun 4/1 (A&B). Medicare reflects NO LIS, NO PDP coverage, NOT Full. IEP ends this month. Due to PA COVID extension, still has Medicaid but probably will lose it when extension ends; TBD. However, when I asked how much they are currently paying for their list of Medications, they gave the Medicaid Rates.
My question is ultimately: how is this possible? My understanding was once someone gets Medicare, Medicaid is secondary but Rx coverage stops with the exception of a handful of drug types.
Am I missing something here? I wish Medicare and Medicaid would make it very clear how they interact with one another during this transition period but it seems everyone is different.