Sorry, I didn't take that from your question. Your original question seemed to suggest otherwise.
Anyway the answer your question is complicated to answer and deserves a thread of it's own, but essentially the answer lies within the property owner's prior useage of the property and/or future intent as to the disposition of the property.
With regard to the property in question in this thread, it seems clear that this property should have been written as a vacant property, or if he was doing some renovation work prior to sale, perhaps a builders risk..
Anyway the answer your question is complicated to answer and deserves a thread of it's own, but essentially the answer lies within the property owner's prior useage of the property and/or future intent as to the disposition of the property.
With regard to the property in question in this thread, it seems clear that this property should have been written as a vacant property, or if he was doing some renovation work prior to sale, perhaps a builders risk..
No, substitution is fraud. I was questioning definitions, unoccupied vs. vacant.