- Thread starter
- #11
insurance_web
New Member
- 6
Josh, You should read the reply I posted earlier to understand what my point was. Here it is!
I am not sure why you guys think I am perpetrating a fraud or something. I understand that yes this does not make sense.
When I bought the policy, it asked me if I have ever have physical property damage or injury (to which I said no, which is completely correct). None of these happened during the burglary.
About fraud, at no point did I claim that I bought the insurance policy before the burglary. I reported the true time of crime. They know the time I bought my policy because its on the policy and is about 12 hours after the burglary.
Why I asked the question is to find out if this was some kind of a loop-hole that may work. Because the policy reads that it starts on xyz date but does not say what time. No where does it have any clause regarding that it is after the time it was bought. Simple one date (xyz).
Sorry to offend you guys. Thats not what I meant to do.
Thanks for your replies. I appreciate the help!
I am not sure why you guys think I am perpetrating a fraud or something. I understand that yes this does not make sense.
When I bought the policy, it asked me if I have ever have physical property damage or injury (to which I said no, which is completely correct). None of these happened during the burglary.
About fraud, at no point did I claim that I bought the insurance policy before the burglary. I reported the true time of crime. They know the time I bought my policy because its on the policy and is about 12 hours after the burglary.
Why I asked the question is to find out if this was some kind of a loop-hole that may work. Because the policy reads that it starts on xyz date but does not say what time. No where does it have any clause regarding that it is after the time it was bought. Simple one date (xyz).
Sorry to offend you guys. Thats not what I meant to do.
Thanks for your replies. I appreciate the help!